Lord is always a reference to her husband. Why would she lay up his garment for Josephs Lord because they (Joseph and his master) were not married were they? She would lay up Joseph’s garment for her husband when he got back to frame Joseph. The pronoun was always feminine. (I mean always) So why does the so called kjv say his Lord when the original word was always her?
The simple explanation is that in 1769 what has become to be known as the kjv was changed privately and sold to protestants as an update. This was a blatant lie and there is zero doubt about it. There are numerous other such examples including Song of Solomon 2:7. We could literally go on for years as others have done. See the Lamp in the Dark series on this site which this is part of.
Please note that since this video was produced Ceville Bible Baptist web site no longer exists. Follow the you Tube link below for all the recent presentations from john Doerr.