Tue. Sep 27th, 2022
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    I have been to Bible College, have as couple of Diplomas, studied the Greek and apparently studied the bible for decades but still never knew about this subject. I ask myself why is that? Why did I have more alleged knowledge of the bible than 90% of lay persons and still remained completely ignorant? It amazes me truly. That is a small introduction to this subject. I write to help me learn. I find it helps to type this down. If your are interested feel free to read on. If you are scholar you will probably want to close this page as it will be beneath your knowledge. It will be far too simple for you.

    A simple internet search displays the real reason for this alleged fraud – the crime of getting money by deceiving people (Cambridge – always check for yourself) Another legal website says:

    Fraud takes place when a person deliberately practices deception in order to gain something unlawfully or unfairly. In most states, the act of fraud can be classified as either a civil or a criminal wrong. While fraud is most commonly committed to obtain benefits of value, it sometimes occurs solely for the purpose of deceiving another person or entity. For instance, if a person makes false statements, it may be considered fraud, depending on the circumstances. To explore this concept, consider the following fraud definition.

    https://legaldictionary.net/fraud/

    Definition of Fraud

    Noun

    1. Wrongful deception with the intent to gain personally or financially
    2. Intentional deception in order to persuade another person to part with something of value
    3. A person who pretends to be something or someone he is not

    Intentional deception in order to persuade another person to part with something of value

    Authorized?

    The intentional deception occurred in 1769 and was instigated by a man called Dr. Benjamin Blayney who corrected alleged mistakes in the 1611 bible. Apparently the numerous errors were the reason for this review? As I searched the internet (which is increasingly more difficult every day) I found one very arrogant post citing the massive list of the King James was the following – (He cites a website called AV1611 however it is not the authorized version text but probably the Blayney butchering).

    “Printing errors were corrected. This was almost exclusively the nature of the corrections made in the 28 years following the first printing. Consider some examples”:

    • Psalm 69:32 — “seek good” was a printing error in the 1611 that was corrected to “seek God” in 1617
    • Ecclesiastes 1:5 — “the place” was a printing error in the 1611 that was corrected to “his place” in 1638.
    • Matthew 6:3 — “thy right doeth” was a printing error in the 1611 that was corrected to “thy right hand doeth” in 1613.

    I could not find the huge list of errors but I am sure a distinguished academic could provide this list of printer errors (type set) from the 1611 printing. He should have pointed to at least once source for me to follow. Now I cannot yet debate the type set errors and the intricacies of the corrections however I have pointed out some obvious changes of scriptural context in the Blayney bible that clearly had nothing to do with printing press errors on this site provided by other reputable sources such as John Doer the creator of the Lamp in the Dark Trilogy also available to view here. In addition is was 1769, just a little while (not) after these errors. So it was not about the printing press but something more.

    Here is my reason for stating fraud. Blayneys Bible still says it was by His Majesty’s special command and former translations diligently compared and revifed.

    1769 Oxford “Standard” Revision of the 1611 KJV BibleFacsimile Reproductions
    What Majesty?

    Is he saying the King James authorized this bible from the grave? Who Authorized it? Himself, the pope? Is he claiming he individually verified the expert work of 47+ scholars 158 years previous? Did he contact them from the dead as expressively forbidden in Deuteronomy? No-one can answer these questions! Was he even qualified in Hebrew? It seems too amazing to be true that he duplicated the multitude of years of man power single highhandedly? The man was a legend of academia obviously. Significantly and exponentially smarter than the average bear too!

    Here is the simple assertion of fraud that I have listed above from basic common sense. No-one authorized it and he knew little of the translation that the original men based their incredible work upon. He simply did his own thing under the direction of some friends in very high places. I am sure there is significantly more to it than that but I am a very simple man so am just sticking to the two main points. This work is called the King James Bible and it is without doubt not. Can there even be debate? FRAUD.

    Original Tongues?

    He did not translate or examine the translation notes, sources and manuscripts to correct 47+ men’s work over 7 years all on his lonesome. Oh I am certain he had help from someone or something but let’s not stray in to wild conspiracies and just stick to the main fraud which to me to more than enough to win the case or allegations. It was nothing about typing error as they were sorted out within 28 years or so. It was about changing the text itself.

    Clearly he has told two lies. Not authorized and not translated from original tongues. Is it anymore obvious that that? How many lies does it take?

    This video speaks more on the Blayney incident.

    YouTube player

    Source of video

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